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Olde Crone
05-02-15, 20:43
I have a photocopy of a handwritten copy of a will proved in 1898 (so no photocopiers available then!). Copy made at probate, I assume.

The will has "the mark of" rather than a signature. This is for the will and for a codicil as well.

My question: This lady could read and write. She ran a successful business AND she left "my writing case and writing implements" to her step daughter. So, does the "the mark of" indicate that she really did not sign but just made her mark OR does "the mark of" reflect the fact that the will copier has not attempted to copy her signature.

OC

kiterunner
05-02-15, 22:02
I would take it to mean that she didn't sign her name but made her mark. Maybe she was too ill to write?

Olde Crone
05-02-15, 22:06
Thankyou Kate.

So how would they reflect a signature then?

The will was made a good five years before her death but I suppose she could have been physically unable to write if she had arthritis or some such.

OC

kiterunner
05-02-15, 22:17
On the copied out wills that I have, they have just written the name in italics where the signature would have been.

Phoenix
05-02-15, 22:19
I have similar, in a similar period, where I assume that the maker was rendered incapable by a stroke. Or possibly had gone blind?

Olde Crone
05-02-15, 22:42
Yes, I wondered about blind.

Thankyou Kate, that explains things.

OC