Lindsay
18-05-13, 20:14
Not something I've had to concern myself with before. :)
I've found a description of John Stace's memorial (1661) in Buckinghamshire which apparently featured the Stace coat of arms. I'm trying to understand if he was entitled to use it.
I know John was living in Bucks in the 1630s, yet his name doesn't feature in the Visitation Of Buckinghamshire of 1634, which supposedly included all the families entitled to a coat of arms.
Moreover John's brother, who lived at John's property in Kent, is listed in the Visitation of Kent (1663) as a Disclaimer (as far as I can make out, someone who couldn't prove their right to a coat of arms).
Does anyone know how accurate the Visitations were? Is it possible John and his brother were entitled but couldn't prove it, or is it more likely their only connection was the name?
I've found a description of John Stace's memorial (1661) in Buckinghamshire which apparently featured the Stace coat of arms. I'm trying to understand if he was entitled to use it.
I know John was living in Bucks in the 1630s, yet his name doesn't feature in the Visitation Of Buckinghamshire of 1634, which supposedly included all the families entitled to a coat of arms.
Moreover John's brother, who lived at John's property in Kent, is listed in the Visitation of Kent (1663) as a Disclaimer (as far as I can make out, someone who couldn't prove their right to a coat of arms).
Does anyone know how accurate the Visitations were? Is it possible John and his brother were entitled but couldn't prove it, or is it more likely their only connection was the name?