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Sue from Southend
28-05-12, 11:05
I know the answer to this question is yes, possibly :o but I would like your opinions on how likely it would be!

If a mother dies in childbirth, Apr 1780 is it possible that the child could be baptised in Oct 1780 without a note being made that the mother was deceased?

kiterunner
28-05-12, 11:13
Yes, it is possible. I have one or two like that in my tree. I used to think it was unlikely, but now I'm beginning to think it was quite normal.

And I've just managed to confirm the death of one of the men in my tree 5th May 1860 (from the National Probate Calendar, and a burial 15th May 1860) whose son was baptised 30th May 1860 with no mention of his father being deceased.

ElizabethHerts
28-05-12, 11:37
Yes, it is possible, Sue. I have one in Portsmouth in 1832. Mum died in May 1832 after childbirth and the baby was baptised in August, no note.

Sue from Southend
28-05-12, 15:03
Thanks Kite and Elizabeth. That's most helpful. That would then explain the father leaving everything to another wife!! Just wish I could find the marriage....